We have a patient who is 20 years old, and covered under her father's insurance policy, he is the gaurantor for the bill. Her parents are divorced, and she lives with her mother. When she first presented to the office, she informed me that her father was responsible for her medical bills until she turned 21, and to send the bills to his address. She also informed me that her dad's new wife would probably call the office when they got the first bill, and tell me to change the address and send the bill to the patient, but I was to disregard such a phone call. Today I got that call from the new wife. She told me that I was violating HIPAA regulations by sending a bill to her husband that had the daughter's PHI on it. When I told her that the patient themselves had given permission for that PHI(of which there was very little, only a CPT code for an office visit) to be disclosed, she changed her argument. Now she is saying that it is a HIPAA violation to send a bill listing her husband as the guarantor when the patient is over the age of 18, that the bill should be in the patient's name. The new wife does not dispute that her husband is responsible for the bills, she actually read off of the court order she had while on the phone with me, where it said he was responsible for the patient's medical bills until she turned 21. But she keeps insisting our office is violating HIPAA by sending the bill in the husband's name...NOTHING I can find in my HIPAA compliance manual or on the internet backs her up. Am I missing something here? Are we in violation? The stepmom said the father would call me himself about this later this week, and I was hoping to get some information before he did. I really hate these nasty divorces! Thanks in advance for any help.